APPSC Group I · Past-year questions with answers

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Constitutional Foundations & Political Concepts · 2019 · Paper I · Q52

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PYQ · APPSC Group I 2019 · Paper I · Q52 Difficulty 2/5

Constitutional Foundations & Political Concepts› Constitution Making, Preamble & Salient Features

Which of the following Liberties is sought to be secured to the citizens of India in the Preamble ?

Answer a.

Explanation Answer · a

Option a: the Preamble secures to all citizens liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship. The Preamble resolves to secure to all its citizens 'LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship'. The list has five elements, and option a is the only choice that gives all five. Each of the other options leaves one out.

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Biodiversity & Conservation · 2023 · Paper I · Q116

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PYQ · APPSC Group I 2023 · Paper I · Q116 Difficulty 1/5

Biodiversity & Conservation› Biodiversity Concepts, Hotspots & Threats

The greatest variety (diversity) of animal and plant species can be found in

Answer a.

Explanation Answer · a

The answer is (a), Tropical Moist Forests. Warm temperatures and heavy rain all year support the greatest number of plant and animal species. Tropical moist (rain) forests receive heavy rainfall and stay warm through the year, with no cold season to limit growth. This gives a long growing season and many layers of vegetation, from forest floor to canopy. These layers offer many different habitats (niches). As a result, tropical moist forests hold more species per area than any other terrestrial biome, even though they cover only a small part of Earth's land. Temperate forests, taiga, deserts and savannas have colder or drier conditions that support fewer species.

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Parliament · 2017 · Screening Test · Q2

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PYQ · APPSC Group I 2017 · Screening Test · Q2 Difficulty 3/5

Parliament› Houses, Sessions, Dissolution & Lapsing of Bills

Out of the following, which is not a power granted to Rajya Sabha ?

Answer b.

Explanation Answer · b

Option b. The Constitution gives the Rajya Sabha no power to let State Legislatures make laws on Union List subjects. The Rajya Sabha has two special powers that protect the federal balance. Under Article 249, it can pass a resolution by a two-thirds majority of members present and voting, allowing Parliament to make laws on a State List subject in the national interest. Under Article 312, it can pass a similar resolution allowing Parliament to create a new All India Service. On a Money Bill (Article 109), it can only make recommendations and must return the Bill within 14 days. Nothing in the Constitution lets the Rajya Sabha hand Union List subjects to State Assemblies, so option b is not one of its powers.

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ICT and Emerging Digital Technologies · 2017 · Screening Test · Q74

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PYQ · APPSC Group I 2017 · Screening Test · Q74 Difficulty 2/5

ICT and Emerging Digital Technologies› Electronics, Sensors and Smart Devices

A diode is used for

Answer c.

Explanation Answer · c

The answer is (c). A diode lets current flow in only one direction, so it is used as a rectifier to convert AC into DC. A semiconductor diode is a p-n junction. It conducts when forward biased and almost blocks current when reverse biased. With alternating current (AC), which keeps changing direction, the diode passes only one half of each cycle. This one-way output is direct current (DC), and the process is called rectification. Two or four diodes (full-wave and bridge rectifiers) use both halves of the cycle.

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Colonial Rule: Expansion, Administration and Impact · 2024 · Paper I · Q23

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PYQ · APPSC Group I 2024 · Paper I · Q23 Difficulty 3/5

Colonial Rule: Expansion, Administration and Impact› European Arrival and Company Expansion

Consider the following Indian states: I. Awadh II. Jhansi III. Satara IV. Nagpur V. Sindh Which of the above states were annexed by the British due to the policy of Doctrine of Lapse?

Answer c.

Explanation Answer · c

Option c is correct. Jhansi, Satara and Nagpur were taken under the Doctrine of Lapse. Under the Doctrine of Lapse, Dalhousie annexed a state when its ruler died without a natural heir and the Company refused to accept an adopted son. Satara went in 1848, Jhansi in 1854 and Nagpur in 1854. Awadh was annexed in 1856 on the charge of misgovernment, not lapse. Sindh was conquered by force in 1843 under Charles Napier, in the Amirs' time.

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Money, Banking & Monetary Policy · 2023 · Paper I · Q73

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PYQ · APPSC Group I 2023 · Paper I · Q73 Difficulty 2/5

Money, Banking & Monetary Policy› Monetary Policy Tools & Transmission

Statutory Liquidity Ratio is to be maintained by banks in the form of I. Cash. II. Gold. III. Unencumbered investments in specified instruments. IV. Priority sector loans. Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

Answer d.

Explanation Answer · d

Option d: banks hold SLR in cash, gold and unencumbered approved securities. Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) is the share of a bank's net demand and time liabilities that it must keep in safe, liquid form with itself. Under Section 24 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, this can be held in cash, gold, or unencumbered investments in specified (approved) securities such as government securities. Priority sector loans are a separate lending target and are not liquid assets, so IV is wrong. The correct set is I, II and III.

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Physical Geography: Earth, Landforms and Oceans · 2019 · Paper I · Q103

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PYQ · APPSC Group I 2019 · Paper I · Q103 Difficulty 2/5

Physical Geography: Earth, Landforms and Oceans› Oceans: Currents, Tides, Temperature and Water Distribution

Which of the following is not a warm ocean current ?

Answer b.

Explanation Answer · b

Option b: the Humboldt (Peru) Current is a cold current. The other three are warm currents. The Humboldt, or Peru, Current carries cold water from the Southern Ocean northwards along the west coast of South America, past Chile and Peru. Upwelling along this coast brings nutrient-rich water to the surface. The Agulhas Current (off south-east Africa), the Brazil Current (off eastern South America) and the Kuroshio Current (off Japan) are all warm currents. They flow poleward along the eastern coasts of continents, carrying water from the tropics.

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Macroeconomic Fundamentals · 2010 · Screening Test · Q26

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PYQ · APPSC Group I 2010 · Screening Test · Q26 Difficulty 2/5

Macroeconomic Fundamentals› Planning, 1991 Reforms & Inclusive Growth

Heavy Sector Strategy is associated with the name of :

Answer b.

Explanation Answer · b

The answer is (b) Mahalanobis. His two-sector model (1953), developed into the four-sector model on which the Second Plan was based, put the weight on heavy and capital-goods industry. P. C. Mahalanobis, the statistician who founded the Indian Statistical Institute, built a growth model in 1953 that divided the economy into a capital-goods sector and a consumer-goods sector. He argued that raising the share of investment going to capital goods (steel, machinery, power) would build the capacity to produce more of everything later. He developed this into a four-sector model, which was the basis of the Second Five Year Plan (1956-61). That plan's stress on heavy industry is why the approach is called the Heavy Sector Strategy.

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State & Local Government · 2023 · Paper I · Q52

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PYQ · APPSC Group I 2023 · Paper I · Q52 Difficulty 4/5

State & Local Government› Panchayati Raj & Urban Local Bodies

Which of the following subjects are listed in the 11th Schedule ? I. Women and Child Development II. Public Distribution System III. Libraries IV. Slum Improvement and Upgradation V. Markets and Fairs Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :

Answer c.

Explanation Answer · c

The answer is (c): items I, II, III and V are in the Eleventh Schedule; slum improvement is in the Twelfth Schedule. The Eleventh Schedule lists 29 subjects for Panchayats. Libraries (item 20), markets and fairs (item 22), women and child development (item 25) and the public distribution system (item 28) are all in it. Slum improvement and upgradation is item 10 of the Twelfth Schedule, which lists the 18 functions of urban local bodies (Municipalities). So IV is the odd one out and option (c) is correct.

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Union Executive · 2019 · Paper I · Q49

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PYQ · APPSC Group I 2019 · Paper I · Q49 Difficulty 3/5

Union Executive› President & Vice-President

Match the following :

List IList II
a. ReprieveI. Reduce the amount of sentence without changing its character
b. RespiteII. Substitute one form of punishment for other of a lighter character
c. RemissionIII. Awarding lesser sentence
d. CommutationIV. A stay of execution of sentence

Codes : a b c d

Answer a.

Explanation Answer · a

Option a: Reprieve – IV, Respite – III, Remission – I, Commutation – II. Article 72 (President) and Article 161 (Governor) name several forms of clemency, each with its own meaning. A reprieve is a temporary stay of execution of a sentence, especially a death sentence, so that the convict can seek a pardon or commutation: IV. A respite is the award of a lesser sentence than the one originally passed, because of a special fact such as the physical disability of the convict or the pregnancy of a woman offender: III. Remission reduces the amount of a sentence without changing its character, for example from two years' rigorous imprisonment to one year's rigorous imprisonment: I. Commutation substitutes a lighter form of punishment for the original one, for example death to rigorous imprisonment: II. The code is IV, III, I, II, which is option a.

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Indian Physical Geography · 2024 · Paper I · Q104

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PYQ · APPSC Group I 2024 · Paper I · Q104 Difficulty 3/5

Indian Physical Geography› Himalayas, Peninsular Block, Hills, Peaks and Glaciers

Which of the following statements regarding Himalayas are correct? I. Himalayas are geologically young and structurally fold mountains. II. They are wide in Kashmir and narrow in the North-eastern states. III. The folds of Great Himalayas are asymmetrical in nature and their core is composed of granite. IV. The longitudinal valleys lying between Greater and Lesser Himalayas are known as Duns. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Answer b.

Explanation Answer · b

Option b. Statements I, II and III are correct. Statement IV is wrong because duns lie between the Lesser Himalaya and the Shiwaliks, not between the Greater and Lesser Himalaya. The Himalayas are young fold mountains formed by the collision of the Indian and Eurasian plates. They are about 400 km wide in Kashmir and narrow to about 150 km in Arunachal Pradesh. The Greater Himalaya (Himadri) has asymmetrical folds and a granite core. Duns are flat-floored longitudinal valleys between the Lesser Himalaya (Himachal) and the outer Shiwaliks, for example Dehradun, Kotli Dun and Patli Dun. Statement IV places them in the wrong belt.

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Indian National Movement · 2024 · Paper I · Q28

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PYQ · APPSC Group I 2024 · Paper I · Q28 Difficulty 2/5

Indian National Movement› Simon Commission to Poona Pact: Civil Disobedience Era

Consider the following events : I. Visit of Simon Commission to India II. Purna Swaraj resolution at Lahore session III. Launch of Dandi March Which of the above main events took place during the tenure of Lord Irwin ?

Answer d.

Explanation Answer · d

Option (d): all three events took place while Lord Irwin was Viceroy (April 1926 to April 1931). Lord Irwin was Viceroy of India from April 1926 to April 1931. The Simon Commission arrived in India in February 1928. The Lahore session of the Congress passed the Purna Swaraj (complete independence) resolution in December 1929. Gandhi began the Dandi March on 12 March 1930. All three dates fall inside Irwin's term, so I, II and III are all correct.

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Medieval India · 2017 · Screening Test · Q126

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PYQ · APPSC Group I 2017 · Screening Test · Q126 Difficulty 4/5

Medieval India› Vijayanagara and Regional Sultanates

What was the practice adopted by the Vijayanagar Kings to protect the inhabitants within a fortified area from starvation due to sieges by enemy armies ?

Answer c.

Explanation Answer · c

The answer is (c). The Vijayanagara rulers kept large stretches of cultivated land inside the fortified area, so the people could be fed during a long siege. The Vijayanagara capital was defended by several concentric lines of walls. Visitors' accounts, such as that of Abdur Razzaq (who visited in the 1440s), described seven lines of fortification, with cultivated fields, gardens and houses lying between the first, second and third walls. Because farmland lay inside the outer defences, the city could grow food even while an enemy army stayed outside. This is why the practice of including agricultural tracts within the fortified area is the one associated with protecting inhabitants from starvation during sieges.

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Statements, Syllogism & Deduction · 2023 · Paper II · Q36

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PYQ · APPSC Group I 2023 · Paper II · Q36 Difficulty 3/5

Statements, Syllogism & Deduction› Logical Deduction & Truth Puzzles

P, Q, R and S are four statements. Relation between these statements is as follows : I. If P is true, then Q must be true. II. If Q is true, then R must be true. III. If S is true, then either Q is false or R is false. Which of the following must be true ?

Answer a.

Explanation Answer · a

Option a: if P is true then Q and R are both true, and statement III then forbids S, so S must be false. Suppose P is true. By I, Q is true; by II, R is then true. Statement III says that if S is true, at least one of Q and R is false. With Q and R both true, S cannot be true (contrapositive of III), so S is false. Hence 'If P is true, then S is false' must hold. The other options reverse an implication or claim something the conditions do not force, and each can be refuted by an assignment that satisfies I, II and III.

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Arithmetic & Commercial Maths · 2023 · Paper II · Q1

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PYQ · APPSC Group I 2023 · Paper II · Q1 Difficulty 2/5

Arithmetic & Commercial Maths› Averages

There are nine 2-digit consecutive odd numbers. If 59 is the mean of the first five such numbers, then what is the mean of all the nine numbers ?

Answer b.

Explanation Answer · b

The answer is (b) 63. The mean of the first five terms is the 3rd term (59), and the mean of all nine is the 5th term, two steps of 2 higher. Consecutive odd numbers differ by 2, so they form an arithmetic progression. The mean of any odd count of evenly spaced terms is the middle term. For the first five terms the middle is the 3rd term, so the 3rd term is 59. The terms are then 55, 57, 59, 61, 63, 65, 67, 69, 71 (all two-digit odd numbers). Check: the first five (55 to 63) sum to 295, and 295 / 5 = 59. For all nine terms the middle one is the 5th term, which is 63. Check by sum: 55 + 57 + 59 + 61 + 63 + 65 + 67 + 69 + 71 = 567, and 567 / 9 = 63. Shortcut: the 5th term is two steps of 2 above the 3rd, so 59 + 4 = 63.

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Public Finance · 2017 · Screening Test · Q21

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PYQ · APPSC Group I 2017 · Screening Test · Q21 Difficulty 3/5

Public Finance› Taxation & Fiscal Federalism

Compositional shift from grants to tax devolution from Centre to State causes

Answer b.

Explanation Answer · b

The answer is (b). Shifting central transfers from grants to tax devolution raises the share of unconditional (untied) transfers to States. Tax devolution is a share of the divisible pool of central taxes that goes to States under Article 270, as recommended by the Finance Commission under Article 280. States can spend it as they choose, so it is an unconditional transfer. Grants, by contrast, are often tied to a scheme or purpose. The Fourteenth Finance Commission raised States' share of the divisible pool from 32% to 42%. When the mix moves from grants towards devolution, the untied share of total transfers rises. That is exactly option b.

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Ancient India · 2019 · Paper I · Q14

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PYQ · APPSC Group I 2019 · Paper I · Q14 Difficulty 2/5

Ancient India› Guptas, Post-Gupta Kingdoms and Harsha

Arrange the following rulers of Gupta dynasty in chronological order : (i) Chandragupta II (ii) Skandagupta (iii) Samudragupta (iv) Kumaragupta I Select the correct answer from the code given below : Code :

Answer a.

Explanation Answer · a

Option a: Samudragupta, Chandragupta II, Kumaragupta I, Skandagupta, which is (iii), (i), (iv), (ii). These four rulers succeeded one another in this order. Samudragupta reigned c. 335–375 CE, his son Chandragupta II c. 375–415, Chandragupta II's son Kumaragupta I c. 415–455, and Kumaragupta I's son Skandagupta c. 455–467. Written with the code numbers this is (iii), (i), (iv), (ii), which is option a.

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Indian Economic Geography · 2024 · Paper I · Q117

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PYQ · APPSC Group I 2024 · Paper I · Q117 Difficulty 2/5

Indian Economic Geography› Agriculture: Crops, Conditions and Cropping Patterns

Identify the incorrect statement on Wheat crop cultivation in India :

Answer d.

Explanation Answer · d

The incorrect statement is (d). The black soil region of the Deccan is suitable for wheat. Wheat is the second most important cereal in India after rice. It is a rabi crop sown in winter and needs a cool growing season with a warm, dry harvest period. Its main belt is the Ganga-Satluj plains in the north-west, and the black soil region of the Deccan is the second major wheat zone. So saying black soil is not suitable for wheat is wrong. The other three statements are correct.

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Climate Change · 2017 · Screening Test · Q61

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PYQ · APPSC Group I 2017 · Screening Test · Q61 Difficulty 2/5

Climate Change› UNFCCC, Kyoto, Paris & Carbon Markets

How many national missions have been started as part of the National Action Plan on Climate Change ?

Answer b.

Explanation Answer · b

The answer is (b). The National Action Plan on Climate Change (2008) set up eight national missions. The National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) was released on 30 June 2008 by the Prime Minister's Council on Climate Change. It set up eight national missions: the National Solar Mission, National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency, National Mission on Sustainable Habitat, National Water Mission, National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem, National Mission for a Green India, National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture, and National Mission on Strategic Knowledge for Climate Change.

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Physics and Chemistry Fundamentals · 2010 · Screening Test · Q33

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PYQ · APPSC Group I 2010 · Screening Test · Q33 Difficulty 3/5

Physics and Chemistry Fundamentals› Basic Chemistry and Chemicals in Everyday Life

Permanent hardness of water is due to the presence of :

Answer a.

Explanation Answer · a

The answer is (a) calcium sulphate. Sulphates (and chlorides) of calcium and magnesium stay dissolved on boiling, so they cause permanent hardness. Hard water contains dissolved calcium and magnesium salts, which form a scum with soap. Temporary hardness comes from their bicarbonates, which boiling turns into insoluble calcium carbonate or magnesium hydroxide: Ca(HCO3)2 gives CaCO3 + H2O + CO2, and Mg(HCO3)2 gives Mg(OH)2 + 2CO2. Permanent hardness comes from the chlorides and sulphates of calcium and magnesium. These do not break down on boiling, so boiling cannot remove them. Calcium sulphate is the one such salt among the options.

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